Can I use a router port from a remote network as a gateway to a remote subnet?

Question

Network administration

Good day. I ran into a practical question, the answer to which I cannot physically implement, but I have not found a theory anywhere on it.
Initial data:
1) 3 computer networks: 10.50.1.0/24, 10.53.1.0/24, 192.168.0.0/24. Networks 10.50.1.0/24 and 10.53.1.0/24 are allocated by the provider.
2) networks 10.50.1.0/24, 10.53.1.0/24 are connected through routers by the provider (you cannot get into these routers).
I don’t know what exactly they are connected with, but PCs from 10.50.1.0/24 can access PCs from 10.53.1.0/24 using a direct IP address and vice versa (from that network to this one).
3) there is a Mikrotik router, which has one interface at 10.53.1.0/24, the other at 192.168.0.0/24.
4) Mikrotik has a route to the network 10.50.1.0/24 through the provider's gateway 10.53.1.1.
5) 2 PCs with addresses 10.50.1.19 and 192.168.0.10 with Windows OS.
Purpose: to transfer data from computers to each other by IP addresses without raising NAT on the router (everything works with NAt raised).
Question: will there be data transfer after registering a static route on the computer 10.50.1.19 on the command line with a remote gateway of the Mikrotik 10.53.1.10 router?
The command to write the route is route add 192.168.0.0 Mask 255.255.255.0 10.53.1.10 metric 30.
Thank you in advance for your answers.

Answer 1

If you register routes on the provider's gateway, it will work without NAT, but, since "you can't get into these routers," only NAT remains.